Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 00:41
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Why am I so afraid that gun owners have set traps to kill me outside my house or my car?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What is the boldest and craziest thing your mother has ever done for you?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?